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smoothie maker agent Roger W.'s avatar

I need help because I doubt your conclusion.

Here's what I got:

Consistent logics are defined as featuring these:

1) law of non-contradiction is endorsed

2) trivialism is endorsed

Paraconsistent logics are defined as featuring these:

1) law of non-contradiction is endorsed

2) trivialism is rejected

But, in the conclusion, you argue that Hegel and Marx reject feature 1.

So, per your definitions, their systems are not consistent logics and also not paraconsistent logics.

So, your conclusion is not correct.

Specifically, the phrase "they are clearly operating within a paraconsistent logic." That cannot be, because, you have written that they reject 1.

-- edit

I misunderstood your definitions.

To correct, your definition of paraconsistent logics excludes the LNC.

But then, Aristotle and Kant does not fit into that corrected definition. They endorse the LNC. Or, are you arguing that Aristotle rejects the LNC? Did I miss that in your article?

To say that Aristotle uses a paraconsistent logic, you have to change the definition, and now paraconsistent logic includes both the endorsement of the LNC and the rejection of the LNC. And if so, neither Aristotle, Kant, Hegel or Marx can properly fit that altered definition.

But why do you say that a philosopher may endorse the LNC and use a paraconsistent logic, if you claim that paraconsistent logics reject the LNC? Such a philosopher would spend all night like Penelope, doing what she had woven during the day.

I don't understand what you mean.

Do you mean that a philosopher may have an escapade and try out how does it feel to reason rejecting the LNC?

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Pedro Henrique Carrasqueira's avatar

I agree with your (and Priest's) assessment that Aristotle's logic is pararaconsistent in nature. It seems to me that Aristotle (together with almost anyone who has never taken at least an introductory course in classical logic, for that matter) has what we would nowadays call a "relevant" conception of logical consequence. Most likely, so do Hegel and Marx. That said, I have the impression that this is as far as it goes, in regards to how similarly their conceptions of logic deal with contradictions. It is clear from the outset that Aristotle would reject dialetheism, or anything akin to it. I have no stance on whether Hegel and Marx are to be taken as dialetheists, but in any case I suspect that their conception of logic (whatever it may ultimately be) would fit in the "something akin to dialetheism" category.

In sum, Aristotle's logic is certainly paraconsistent in the technical sense, but as far as I can see it is not paraconsistent in any interesting sense (i.e. in a sense that makes some good of all the logical room left by the rejection of ex contradictione quodlibet).

In any event, thanks for this very insightful article!

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